Hacker Newsnew | past | comments | ask | show | jobs | submitlogin

Is there any reason that the definition of "prime" hasn't been changed to "a natural number only divisible by 1 and itself and is non-invertible"?


It's kind of murky because in commutative algebra that is actually not the definition of a prime. It just so happens that the prime numbers are precisely the natural numbers with this property. It's fine to define prime numbers that way, but in more general contexts a prime element is actually an element p which cannot divide a product of two elements a.b without dividing one (or both) of them. It just so happens that the non-invertible natural numbers with this property also aren't able to be written as a product p = c.d such that c != 1 and d != 1. In other number rings this isn't necessarily the same thing.


Is something missing here? As I understand it, that general definition works like this:

6 divides 49, but does not divide either 4 or 9. Therefore, 6 is not prime.

But I'm pretty sure 1 cannot divide the product of two integers m, n* while failing to divide m and n individually. So while that general definition does exclude composite numbers, it doesn't seem to exclude 1?


The correct "general" definition also requires the prime element to be non-invertible and non-zero, thus 1 is excluded.

It should be noted that this definition excludes "composite numbers" only when the ring is an integral domain. In a general commutative ring this isn't necessarily true.


For this and the "general" definition to coincide, the ring in question has to be a unique factorization domain, which the integers are an example of. In any bigger subset of rings (integral domains or general commutative rings), there are rings for which this doesn't hold.




Guidelines | FAQ | Lists | API | Security | Legal | Apply to YC | Contact

Search: