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You are assuming that profits on successive days are uncorrelated.

And in any case, all you have proven is that we can reject the null that the distribution of JP morgans daily returns this year, was different to the distribution of their daily returns in previous years.

Let's leave guilty-by-rejecting-the-null-in-an-artificial-model to the courts and not let their logic infect HN too. All that's been shown is that JP Morgan have had 0 days with a trading loss. No one has actually shown they did anything wrong, or even explained what they might have done wrong.




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