I dunno. This reads to me like an attempt to retroactively justify the effects of US policies that were aimed at a different purpose. I don't think I've ever seen an American politician say that they'd prefer for industry X or Y to be located in a different country.
I don't think either of these policies intended or caused other countries to "take over industries we did not want in our own backyards". In the 50s and 60s the US still ran consistent trade surpluses.
