> How can you assert that all of this is irrelevant and that it was pure "Northern European superiority" or whatever that meant European colonialism was successful?
Because the alternative is doing what James_K is doing and claiming that these events were essentially chance developments; that is, that there was nothing endogenous to European civilization (or, perhaps, as you're inferring, European peoples themselves) that led to these world conquests, but that they were instead either just a series of coincidences or a product of the environment.
This discussion can get quite philosophical because like I said earlier in the thread, I can't refute historical determinism - I don't know if there is any way that we can really exit the chain of causality and determine events for ourselves, so in that sense, the underlying claim that it's all just the environment (or more accurately, antecedent causes) is correct, but this doesn't tell the whole story.
The fundamental question at hand here is if European civilization had anything within it that led to its rise to power. What you, James_K, and decolonialists everywhere are preoccupied with is the idea that if this is true, it must mean that this "thing" (which I will refer to as the European method) originated as a result of European intelligence, or more broadly from its biological characteristics. It is then inferred that this will necessarily lead to normative scientific racism and subsequently a world-homogenizing genocide.
There is reason to be weary of these things. They do not refute the notion that the Europeans possessed something endogenous which allowed them to conquer the world. Drawing the conclusion that Europeans did possess this endogenous thing would not validate any normative moral claim; we can only do that ourselves.
Because the alternative is doing what James_K is doing and claiming that these events were essentially chance developments; that is, that there was nothing endogenous to European civilization (or, perhaps, as you're inferring, European peoples themselves) that led to these world conquests, but that they were instead either just a series of coincidences or a product of the environment.
This discussion can get quite philosophical because like I said earlier in the thread, I can't refute historical determinism - I don't know if there is any way that we can really exit the chain of causality and determine events for ourselves, so in that sense, the underlying claim that it's all just the environment (or more accurately, antecedent causes) is correct, but this doesn't tell the whole story.
The fundamental question at hand here is if European civilization had anything within it that led to its rise to power. What you, James_K, and decolonialists everywhere are preoccupied with is the idea that if this is true, it must mean that this "thing" (which I will refer to as the European method) originated as a result of European intelligence, or more broadly from its biological characteristics. It is then inferred that this will necessarily lead to normative scientific racism and subsequently a world-homogenizing genocide.
There is reason to be weary of these things. They do not refute the notion that the Europeans possessed something endogenous which allowed them to conquer the world. Drawing the conclusion that Europeans did possess this endogenous thing would not validate any normative moral claim; we can only do that ourselves.