Couple thoughts - for your reflection - apropos of nothing:
1) On motivations/intergenerational wealth, there is the phenomenon of your father-in-law giving you a job at his big firm (or farm, or however that plays out), which is as common as it is commonly looked down upon (maybe?)
2) I wonder if the matrilocal tendency we see today was as common in the first half of the 19th cent (or earlier), or if it flipped , e.g. in the 1970s
I've had similar questions like yours but AFAICT there's a real dearth of data and research that goes beyond broad, general trends.
There is a lot of research (both value neutral as well as from conservative and liberal lenses) studying both the US and various other countries and communities showing correlation between (and often arguing causation of) matrilocality on the one hand and the breakdown or absence of institutional marriage and/or economic codependence. When I wrote the above I had more in mind upper middle class norms where marriage and economic codependency are still quite strong. But in many cases the most proximate cause of matrilocality is pretty obvious--lack of cultural structures/pressures to support viable alternatives.
1) On motivations/intergenerational wealth, there is the phenomenon of your father-in-law giving you a job at his big firm (or farm, or however that plays out), which is as common as it is commonly looked down upon (maybe?)
2) I wonder if the matrilocal tendency we see today was as common in the first half of the 19th cent (or earlier), or if it flipped , e.g. in the 1970s