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Your own source says that violent victimizations is up YoY, and crime reporting is down YoY


that is a dishonest interpretation of the data, the overall _trend_ is "U.S. violent and property crime rates have plunged since 1990s, regardless of data source"


Why should crime ever go up, if other countries show that the floor of crime rate is even lower through policy and enforcement changes? It is always valid to blame the government for high crime relative to other nations with lower crime.




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