>The question of where the new product goes has nothing to do with the question of worker productivity unless the workers have the funds to purchase those products. The product goes where the purchasing power is.
That is my exact question, who is purchasing the goods? we have high employment and have supposedly high productivity. We dont have massive national export surplus. You say capital isn't purchasing the goods, so what gives?
Where is the black hole that is consuming all of the goods, if the workers dont get them, the rich dont get them, and they aren't exported.
> Where is the black hole that is consuming all of the goods, if the workers dont get them, the rich dont get them, and they aren't exported.
Take new cars as an example. We are producing fewer of them [1], they are larger and more expensive, and they are mostly being sold to wealthier people. So yes in this case, capital owners (people more likely to have more wealth) are the ones purchasing the product.
Also, for a while we have been shifting towards a services based economy, so for a lot of this production growth, you won't see physical products. For example, you can't see the software IDE subscription I signed up for yesterday.
We also don't have a national export surplus because we import so many goods that are not worthwhile to manufacture here, while we export a ton of services, petroleum, and other raw extracted materials, all industries that scale with technology/capital/machinery and not labor.
This still seems to negate the point you made earlier that there are huge productivity gains and 100% of them have gone to shareholders. It doesn't seem realistic that they are using all of the new services. I feel like I'm repeating myself, so I think this is the last post.
> This still seems to negate the point you made earlier that there are huge productivity gains and 100% of them have gone to shareholders.
I didn't say 100%, I said most (re-read my comments upthread). Please don't misrepresent my words. I choose them carefully.
Greater productivity does not automatically equal a commensurate increase in products/services delivered, which seems to be the flawed assumption you are unable to get past.
Here is a concrete scenario to illustrate this.
A company makes 1M units of a product at a cost of $1/unit, and sells them for $1.50/unit. Profit/unit is $.50.
Productivity doubles, so the same million units can now be produced for $.50/unit. When sold for $1.50, profit is now $1/unit.
The $.50/unit increase in profit goes mostly to shareholders.
There are no new products, no new services.
In reality, demand varies over time, so product output varies with that, but the gains in profit mostly have gone to shareholders.
The only time they ever go to labor is when labor is in short supply or when labor organizes to demand a larger share.
That is my exact question, who is purchasing the goods? we have high employment and have supposedly high productivity. We dont have massive national export surplus. You say capital isn't purchasing the goods, so what gives?
Where is the black hole that is consuming all of the goods, if the workers dont get them, the rich dont get them, and they aren't exported.