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If two or more people rent the same "household" (house, apartment, couple of rooms) they are only counted a single time.

1 homeowner and 1 renter = 50%

1 homeowner and 2 renters in the same apartment = 50%

1 homeowner and 200,000 renters in the same apartment = 50%

1 homeowner and 2 renters in 2 different apartments = 33%

It's a ratio of homeowners to the number of buildings the rest of us rent out.




I notice that this isn't even close to the claim GP quotes you making. It's wild to me that you're out here telling the other guy to just own up to their "misunderstanding" while furiously backpedaling your own.

There is subtlety of the "renters are probably systematically undercounted due to the vagaries of householding" variety, but that is neither a straightforward effect (a homeowning married couple with 2 of their parents and 3 adult children under the same roof and 1 single renter in an apartment = 50%!) nor is it remotely what you were saying to begin with.


It's just the number of housing units owned versus rented. The occupancy is ignored in both ownership [even if joinly owned] and rental.

As per the definition: "The householder refers to the person (or one of the persons) in whose name the housing unit is owned or rented"




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