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> they then ask "well if not the rich, then who?" indicating that they think rich folks were the most likely to get in. If not them, then who?

> Jesus then says "no mortal person,"

Except this isn't what Jesus says. He says "With man 'it' is impossible." Jesus' response doesn't even make grammatical sense as a reply to "who can be saved?" because it isn't a reply to that. The question "Who can be saved?" was posed among the listeners to themselves, not to Christ:

> And they were astonished out of measure, saying among themselves, Who then can be saved?

Jesus' statement "with man it is impossible" is a continuation of the thought that it is difficult for a rich man to enter the kingdom of Heaven (so hard that it requires a miracle above what's required for a normal person). It's impossible with men that a camel should pass through the eye of a needle, but with God, it's possible (and thus possible for a rich man to be saved, though not easy).

It's not that there's anything good about poor people that gets them in; it's that rich people don't want in.

Any interpretation that makes it as easy for rich people to enter as it is for poor people is missing the clear meaning of the words.



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