It also doesn't say that the shares were paid for with wire transaction as opposed to physical cash in stacks of $100 bill, but that also is what happened. They're not going to explain the common bit in every story, only the unique bits. Whenever the gov't sells things in a bankruptcy or fraud proceeding, the money goes to the creditors/victims, and then fines.

> Perhaps, but the posted does not say that...

It doesn't say the government is profiting either. You just made that up.

You are missing a very obvious piece of the puzzle here: assets seized by the government during bankruptcy get used to offset liabilities of the bankrupt company. This doesn't need to be explicitly said; it wouldn't make sense for it to work any other way.

> Well, that piece is pretty easy to conclude.

It's also an incorrect conclusion.