Hacker Newsnew | past | comments | ask | show | jobs | submitlogin

Does a "subpoena" mean a judge was involved? The post says the subpoena was issued by the DOJ.


It means a court is involved, but not a judge.

Edit

Even that is technically wrong; some DOJ subpoenas are apparently preauthorized by statute.


There's a pretty extensive list of administrative subpoena authority here:

https://www.justice.gov/archive/olp/rpt_to_congress.htm

tl;dr: Everyone from the Appalachian Regional Commission on down can subpoena you without a court being involved. And of course Congress has inherent subpoena powers.


Oh, this is so cool. Thank you!

This is a step towards answering my noodly question earlier in the thread: authorization for NDAs and "gag orders" in subpoenas appears to be controlled by (varying) statutes.




Guidelines | FAQ | Lists | API | Security | Legal | Apply to YC | Contact

Search: