> If china is a rival to the US, why do they have one of the most favorable trade deals?
I don't have an answer for you, but when you rephrase the point you're getting at it's easy to see there are plenty of valid reasons, because this is not true:
> There are no reasons for the US to give a favorable trade deal to a country that is otherwise a rival
You claim you don’t have an answer, but then state that by simple rephrasing the answer is obvious?
Can you specify a specific reason? There are historic examples of trade deals made for this reason such as with the Soviet Union or communist china. However I cannot think of an example where a country has given unilaterally favorable trade terms to a rival except out of fealty/tribute.
I don't have an answer for you, but when you rephrase the point you're getting at it's easy to see there are plenty of valid reasons, because this is not true:
> There are no reasons for the US to give a favorable trade deal to a country that is otherwise a rival