I think if one quickly reads the comment I replied to, one could think that most Apple devices are owned by people who are very rich compared to others in their country. I know I tripped up on that implication for example. However there are a lot more middle-income Europeans than very rich Brazilians so the actual balance of Apple users mostly come from the middle of a small number of rich countries rather than the top of a slightly larger number of small countries. For example if you counted each US state as a country, I think it would not be the case that ‘In most countries Apple's market is the top 1%’ so I think the statistic is mostly biased by the fact that the richer countries where most Apple devices are owned are very large countries and so their population is underweighted in a ‘proportion of countries’ statistic.