Right, but doesn't your analogy support my point? Just like people overlook the Indian legacy embedded in western mathematics, they overlook the Christian legacy embedded in secular western culture and morality.
How so? How does using similar notation than what was/is used in Indian/Arabic cultures make you affiliated with any notion of morals that coincided in those areas? Are you, using numerals, just a Muslim in disguise? Or a Hindu?
I don't see that connection whatsoever. If anything, Western culture, morality, and customs (such as Christmas or Easter) predate Christianity by hundreds or thousands of years.
