On an entirely separate note, all this talk of inter-gender differences is useless without some consideration of their scale relative to intra-gender differences.
But isn't that exactly what the author is suggesting? That the within-group variance tends to be higher in men than in women, even if the differences in averages between the groups are not significant?
But isn't that exactly what the author is suggesting? That the within-group variance tends to be higher in men than in women, even if the differences in averages between the groups are not significant?