In the US pension system, are the pension payments somehow delayed from the actual date that liability is accrued, i.e. the day the employee gets paid the first time? Is it legal for a company to pay a salary to their employees without having the financial assets to back all other liabilities? I can somehow see the twisted reasoning behind this, but it still feels wrong.
Asking this as a foreigner and because such a system sounds so ripe for abuse that it would have already been fixed if it really was flawed and affected those pensioners' lives.
Asking this as a foreigner and because such a system sounds so ripe for abuse that it would have already been fixed if it really was flawed and affected those pensioners' lives.