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Using Occam's razor like that is essentially a logical fallacy.


Elaborate? We are discussing event probability, not logical inference, so how can there be fallacy in the first place.


Yes and you are assigning event probability arbitrarily. This is why it is hard to use occams razor correctly in a non-subjective way. I can just as easily say that there is a very high probability that she said it, and doesn't want it on the record. There is nothing backing this as being more or less probable than what you said, it is all arbitrarily subjective prob assignments since we are both going on nearly no information.




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