Sorry, by OP I meant the Law&Crime article. As much as I strongly disagreed with mannykannot, disagreement != "full of shit" (at least on HN, for me).
The disagreement between me and mannykannot has to do with our fundamental assumptions. He believes that the OP's allegation -- that Facebook PR contacted the NYT, and the NYT afterwards edited its story -- is a sound premise. My argument (among many) is that the OP has provided no evidence for assuming that premise.
Not only did the NYT reporter explain what FBPR told her (they gave her an official statement to be associated with Stamos), they've denied that FBPR pressured them to do anything else. FB PR certainly hasn't said anything. I know that this is what we should expect to be the case if NYT and FB were in cahoots, but in these situations, the reporter making such an allegation has done the investigative reporting to find sources who can make the claim (NYT's story on Facebook is very dependent on anonymous sources).
So from my perspective, there is no reason to think that FB PR visit and NYT story update/edit have a causal relationship. I think mannykannot think I doth protest too much (which is fair!) and that my rationalizations and evidence is no more valid than what a conspiracy theorist would be doing.
I see this discussion has been around the block a few times while I have been away, and it set off in the wrong direction in claiming that I am mistaking correlation for causation. While the phrase "Perlroth, however, confirmed that the change occurred after Facebook’s public relations team reached out to the New York Times–some time after the story was published" is formally only stating a correlation, this style of usage is extremely commonly used to state a causal relationship, and it seems clear from the context that this was the intended reading in this case.
While correlation alone does not automatically imply causation, causes result in correlation. I have noticed an uptick recently of invalid uses of the 'correlation is not causation' statement, as if it were a conclusive rebuttal, in situations where the correlation was, in fact, a consequence of the cause, and this seems to be the case here.
The rest of your argument rests on a number of assumptions about which specific people initiated actions, their motives, and that these specific people were each adopting for themselves a single, unchanging, rational and consistent policy -- so much so that the phrase quoted above must have been a fabrication. To me, that seems to require that a lot of the uncertain issues all line up in a particular direction (to be correlated, if you will), and the episode is more parsimoniously explained by the NYT (perhaps in the persons of a junior editor and PR staffer) initially making a decision that the larger organization realized was a mistake, but which then compounded the problem by attempting to gloss over the initial response. The good news, as your references indicate, is that the NYT's action seems to have been a temporary aberration.
Yeah, we just have different premises and assumptions. You and I both accept the following statement made by the article:
> "Perlroth, however, confirmed that the change occurred after Facebook’s public relations team reached out to the New York Times–some time after the story was published"
You think it's clear that the author is intending to state a casual relationship. Great. So my point is that the author is obliged to prove how he knows this is a causal relationship.
You can re-read his post all the way up and down, he provides no evidence. Meanwhile, Perlroth has explained [0] why she was in contact with FB's PR people -- because they wanted to give her Stamos's formal statement. This statement is quoted in Perlroth's story.
So we're still back at square one, starting with the author's hypothesis that FB's contact with NYT is related to the NYT's edit/update of their article. You're free to assume without evidence that it is more than a correlation, just as I'm free to take up skepticism. In a court case, if the NYT thought it'd be a good idea to sue for defamation, I really wonder what the L&C author would use as evidence. NYT, at least, will have the messages/emails between its reporters and FB.
The disagreement between me and mannykannot has to do with our fundamental assumptions. He believes that the OP's allegation -- that Facebook PR contacted the NYT, and the NYT afterwards edited its story -- is a sound premise. My argument (among many) is that the OP has provided no evidence for assuming that premise.
Not only did the NYT reporter explain what FBPR told her (they gave her an official statement to be associated with Stamos), they've denied that FBPR pressured them to do anything else. FB PR certainly hasn't said anything. I know that this is what we should expect to be the case if NYT and FB were in cahoots, but in these situations, the reporter making such an allegation has done the investigative reporting to find sources who can make the claim (NYT's story on Facebook is very dependent on anonymous sources).
So from my perspective, there is no reason to think that FB PR visit and NYT story update/edit have a causal relationship. I think mannykannot think I doth protest too much (which is fair!) and that my rationalizations and evidence is no more valid than what a conspiracy theorist would be doing.
That's fine, HN isn't about winning debates :)