no, it is not. The OP statement is about the probability of the event "{X in Q}" (equal to 0), with X a random variable uniformly distributed on a bounded interval. That even contains many points (infinitely many actually), but has a probability 0.
You are talking about the probability of a single point event, which is also always 0 on that same sigma algebra.
The OP point is not completely trivial because the event contains an infinite (but countably) number of elements. It is fairly easy to understand though since by its very definition, the P[{X in Q}] = sum P[{x}] taken over every rational number (since Q is countable), and each P[{x}] is 0.
A deeper statement is that there exists uncountable sets of probability 0.
You are talking about the probability of a single point event, which is also always 0 on that same sigma algebra.
The OP point is not completely trivial because the event contains an infinite (but countably) number of elements. It is fairly easy to understand though since by its very definition, the P[{X in Q}] = sum P[{x}] taken over every rational number (since Q is countable), and each P[{x}] is 0.
A deeper statement is that there exists uncountable sets of probability 0.