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>Do you realize the US supported a coup against a democratically elected government in Iran?

No, when was that government "democratically elected"?

EDIT: Removed bickering that was distracting from my real question



Mossadeagh, before the Shah. His ousting was the cause of resentment that fuelled the rise of Iran's political system today. You can google when that happened and read the history from then to now and see its all connected.


Mossadeagh was about to be booted by his own people. There were mass protests as he had become very unpopular. Claims the US had a hand in his downfall is being very generous.


It's possible that he was very unpopular. I'm pretty sure it's confirmed from CIA papers since released that the mobs of protesters were organized, paid for and in some cases paid by the CIA, so there's at least an argument that his unpopularity was purchased.


The protests against Mossadegh included tens of thousands of Iranians. Is it possible to create that kind of unpopularity out of thin air using money?[1]

"A startled CIA reported to the White House that "an unexpectedly strong surge of popular and military reaction to Prime Minister Mossadeq's government has resulted, according to the latest dispatches from Tehran, in the virtual occupation of the city by forces professing their loyalty to the Shah and to his appointed Prime Minister Zahedi."

I'm not saying US didn't get it's hands dirty, but to assume that Iran would be a peaceful, democratic country otherwise is being naive.

[1]http://www.cfr.org/iran/myth-american-coup/p30900


I don't think they paid all of them, no, but I think it's entirely possible to fund a group of organizers who could motivate a significant-sized protest.

I make no assumptions about how peaceful and democratic any country in the Middle East would be, with or without US involvement.


So instead of electing someone else, they would install a shah?


The Shah already existed. He just used his power to dismiss Mossadegh (which was constitutional).


Reply to meric, since it won't let me.

>Mossadeagh, before the Shah.

When was he elected. Or if it's like the british system, then when was the parliament that appointed him, elected?


He became Prime Minister in 1951 after his party, the National Front, won a majority in the Iranian Parliament (the Majlis).


As best I can make make out he was appointed in 1951[1], as per the British system, by the parliament elected in 1950[2].

[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mohammad_Mosaddegh#Appointment... [2] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Iranian_legislative_election,_...


My understanding is that the Shah nominated him and he was approved by the elected Majlis. By the time of the coup, though, Mosaddegh had dissolved parliament and was able to unilaterally declare laws by fiat.




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