I have two children in Montessori and agree wholeheartedly with the above.
I would like to emphasize the check for AMS or AMI. Any school can all themselves a Montessori school, so I'd make sure it's at least certified in one of those two (not familiar with SAIS so cannot comment on that).
What does that even mean? Cultures where the population is more sexual dimorphic tend to be have more polygyny?
Or cultures with more polygyny tend towards sexual dimorphism?
Or is this a meaningless correlation?
How is this supposed to explain why the early Latter Day Saint movement were polygamous when they were from the same genetic population as other white Americans in western New York?
Or how Muslim Iberia maintained polygamous traditions despite an increasing genetic contribution from monogamous Christian Europe?
Or how Norse monogamy appears to have increased after the introduction of Christianity, even among the same genetic population?
Or how non-monogamous relationships are increasing in the US even after only 20 years? That's too fast to be caused by a change in population genetics.
Simply put, I don't see how your claim makes any sense. What sources did you use to come to your conclusion?
JS and C++ are killing it on adoption because they had near monopolies for an extended period of time in their respective areas (browser, native higher level language). They are popular despite their obvious (some in hindsight) shortcomings due to lack of alternatives in the same categories.
“Most” vaccines. The reason why they didn’t have to invent “non-sterilizing” as a term just for COVID vaccines, is because some existing vaccines had this same property. The acellular pertussis vaccine (the aP in TDaP) is non-sterilizing for example, yet I bet you never took any issue with it.
Does measles count as a respiratory infection? It causes coughing, is airborne, and infection happens via nasal passages. The intramuscular measles vaccine seems to work pretty well.
> mRNA vaccines tell our cells to make a piece of the “spike protein” that is found on the surface of the SARS-CoV-2 virus. Since only part of the protein is made, it does not harm the vaccine recipient, but it is antigenic and thus stimulates the immune system to make antibodies.
The CDC is obfuscating, or probably lying, depending on your definition. The spike produced from transfected cells is absolutely the whole thing, with two proline insertions, that's it. All the other sequence changes are just optimizations, they don't change the result.
> BNT162b2 is a lipid nanoparticle–formulated, nucleoside-modified RNA vaccine that encodes a prefusion stabilized, membrane-anchored SARS-CoV-2 full-length spike protein.
> The two mRNA vaccines in current widespread application (BioNTech-Pfizer and Moderna) (Table 1) are technologically very similar. They contain codon-optimized sequences for efficient expression of the full-length S protein and use the authentic signal sequence for its biosynthesis44,45,46,47 (Fig. 1b).
> The unifying feature of all current adenovirus-vaccine vectors is the replacement of one of the early adenoviral genes (E1) for the full-length SARS-Cov-2 S gene in the adenoviral DNA (Fig. 4a) and the additional deletion of E3
From this post:
> To date, many approved SARS–CoV–2 vaccines, such as mRNA vaccines and adenovirus–COVID–19 vaccines, have been developed based on the full–length spike protein
If the mRNA and adenovirus vector vaccines weren't expressing the full-length spike, this research would be pointless in the context of the vaccines and the researchers wouldn't raise their findings as a possible efficacy and safety issue for the vaccines.
Similarly, I’m curious as to what the details of a “slightly less generic” type system entails.