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This is quite incorrect. Of the top 10 planted wine varietals in the world [0], all ten are red grapes to red wine or white grapes to white wine:

Top grape varieties by planted hectares 1. Cabernet Sauvignon - red grape, red wine. 2. Merlot - red grape, red wine. 3. Tempranillo - red grape, red wine. 4. Airén - white grape, white wine. 5. Chardonnay - white grape, white wine. 6. Syrah - red grape, red wine. 7. Grenache Noir - red grape, red wine. 8. Sauvignon Blanc - white grape, white wine. 9. Pinot Noir - red grape, red wine. 10. Trebbiano Toscano / Ugni Blanc - white grape, white wine.

There are some wines which are produced with red grapes which are not left on skins so there is no impartation of red colour, but they are really not common and the result is most of the time a bit closer to a light rose than what would be considered a white wine. Perhaps the only style that would be semi-frequently encountered are some French Blanc de Noirs wines, various champagne examples being the most common of these. (And of course standard champagne itself, but I am not sure if that is really considered a white wine). Still, rare. It is also not possible to produce a red wine with a white grape, there is no colour in the skin to impart.

[0]: https://londonwinecompetition.com/en/blog/insights-1/how-the...


Thanks for the correction!

This was some trivia I learned long ago, but I guess without enough context for how often that process is done. Clearly, I am not a wine expert...


What implications?


Full quote:

> Coriander leaves fell even further out of fashion than the seeds because their distinct flavor clashed with the trendy imported ingredients of the time, such as rosewater. In 1544, physician and botanist Pietro Andrea Mattioli described the leaves as smelling like bed bugs or stink bugs, a comparison echoed by later authors.

I read this as "Cilantro fell out of fashion due to it's incompatibility with other popular flavors at a time, and since people love following recent trends, they started describing it in a negative way". In other words, people saw it as "stink-bug-like" because the fashion changed. This happens a lot with food (e.g. Jell-O texture now being repulsive to a lot of people) but in this case, it has nothing to do with fashion, because to a lot of people cilantro does actually have such taste, and this shift in popularity is much better explained by the shift in genetics.


… I mean, coriander leaves (cilantro) was barely a thing at all in Ireland 50 years ago, and is now all over the place, primarily as a component of Indian and Mexican food, which are quite popular. I’m going to bet on fashions/familiarity, there, rather than a spate of sneaky gene therapy.


But that’s your implication the genetic change was widespread enough to effect an entire cultural change. What evidence is there of that?


No, I am just saying that the article is omitting a very important fact that would go against the argument it implies. I am not saying that it was necessarily genetically driven, I am simply saying that I find it strange that this other perspective was not even mentioned, especially since this genetic predisposition to disliking cilantro is such a widely known fact, and since the author they cite chose to describe cilantro in exactly the way everyone with this genetic predisposition (including myself) chooses to describe it.

If an article about the lack of dairy in east Asian cuisine never mentioned the high frequency of lactose intolerance in those regions, it would be equally misleading, even if there were many other factors resulting in this lack of dairy (primarily different agricultural practices).


What do N/S and O/S stand for?

In your example if you have a Spanish car (steering wheel on left hand side of car from driver perspective) driven on UK road (lane on left side of road from driver perspective) then it is still LHD as the left hand refers to the position of the steering wheel relative to the car. This doesn’t change.


Also common in Polynesian cultures - see Faʻafafine from Samoa, Fakaleitī from Tonga, Māhū in Hawaii and Akava'ine in Cook Islands. See also brotherboy and sistergirls which is found across Australian Aboriginal cultures.[4]

[0] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Faʻafafine [1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fakaleitī [2] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Māhū [3] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Akava%27ine [4] https://www.abc.net.au/news/2016-11-21/sistergirls-and-broth...


and, the five genders of the Bugis society (Sulawasi).

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gender_in_Bugis_society

I grew up travelling about the Indonesian and Torres Strait | Northern Australia islands since the 1960s tagging along with family doing logistics across the region .. no one local bats an eye about others with odd genders, skins, totem animals, etc .. it came as a surprise some decades later that an outraged mindset existed.


Musk has been saying that on Twitter, but in Twitter's court filing they exhaustively outline that a) it isn't true and b) it isn't even a valid request from Musk under the contract. Considering how misleading and full of shit Musk has been about this whole thing at this stage I am well inclined to believe Twitter.


> Musk has been saying that on Twitter, but in Twitter's court filing they exhaustively outline that a) it isn't true and b) it isn't even a valid request from Musk under the contract.

I've read the entire complaint, and this is my take as well. Twitter bent over backwards to comply with these requests even if they were invalid.

Twitter played this brilliantly. They kept complying and playing along even with the most obvious nonsense, letting Musk run his impulsive and overconfident mouth.

The number of times he legally shot himself in the foot is just staggering. There's documentation of everything, because he happily provided it. Musk's lawyers and bankers must have been dying a thousand deaths reading his tweets and other public remarks.


If twitter was a house he was buying, I think the analogy is he waived his right to a house inspection being a cause of breaking the contract. He can still have the house inspected though.


Merger & Acquisitions and Real Estate are really separate things so trying to use them for analogies is going to break down rather fast.

If Musk was buying a house (Twitter) we're basically at the point where He's made an offer, they accepted, Musk fulfilled all contingencies (including financial), they both signed the papers transferring ownership, and then Musk decided rather than moving in and wiring them the money he'd rather not. (Analogy doesn't work so well). Sure, if you own a house you can call anybody to come inspect it but you still need to wire the seller the money.


My point was that the contract to purchase waived inspection results (aka percentage of accounts being bots, etc.) being a cause for breach of contract. That diligence can still happen, it just can't be used to back out of the contract.

Any analogy breaks down. I thought this was a good one because in the current housing market many buyers have to waive inspections as a contingency because of bidding wars, etc. They can still get the inspections done though (and should).


Thats not quite the analogy, and the differences are important.

If twitter was a house he was buying, the analogy is he waived his right to a house inspection and highlighted that fact in numerous ways to attain either a more favorable price (since there won't be post-deal negotiation on anything he finds and decides to argue) or to make Twitter more likely to accept. Or a combination of both. And in addition to that, in your offer to buy the house you also made legally binding statements that "I have been able to inquire about anything I might be concerned with about the home, and have been given answers and opportunity to find my answers on those questions, and as a result I am fully satisfied with how that transpired".

The only possible way to then get a home inspection is that you also included a clause that the deal is contingent on a loan being used and its possible that the loan may require certain information or processes. Now, if as a side-effect of getting that loan, a home inspection is required and if that home inspection causes the _bank_ to back out of financing then that is now possibly a cause to break the contract. Even this isnt fully accurate in this case though. Because there were specific guarantees and public statements made around financing that 1) the financing is already lined up (i.e. not contingent on an inspection) and 2) even if that fell through Musk would have the available capital to close the deal.


This analogy is invalid.


Musk's lawyers and bankers probably appreciate the increased fees though.


Bankers are quite exposed on tje debt financing and possibly underwater despite the fees on the deal work


And on Mac you just press Cmd + Shift + 5. You get every option you want. Send to clipboard, documents, desktop, Preview.app (to annotate, make changes, whatever), Photoshop (if you have it). Draw boxes of what you want, select individual windows, select the whole desktop, even record video.

On Mac you can have exactly the same (and actually more feature rich) workflow.

Edit: Oh and I forgot one feature which is actually incredibly useful, you can even set a timer until it takes the screenshot. This is great if you need to interact with the window or show state with a highlight for example.


It's larger than France and Texas combined in area!


Fun fact: if Texas joined Australia, it would be the third smallest state - being slightly smaller than New South Wales. Australia's population however would immediately double.


A very serious concern and I completely agree. However, it also seems like the kind of government that would have you arrested, killed or family harassed for shopping at a particular store probably wouldn’t permit that kind of particular store?

Again, it’s a valid concern but the GP was about real world use cases and it seems that’s not really one?

And if this is the concern why not use cash or monero or whatever for this particular transaction, surely the concern does not extend to all other transactions you are making?


Perhaps you were visiting a nearby state our country when you shopped at that store.

Perhaps the person didn't realize it would be an issue. Perhaps they bought something ancillary and they're not that store's main target customer.


This isn't how it works. You need to look at how much of the flows into BTC (supporting the price) are coming from Tether. You will find this is a whole lot more than 16%. So if it drops to zero 5 minutes from now (not going to happen, but just to use the same scenario), then all those flows which supported the price drop to zero. A comparison between the relative market caps doesn't tell you much, it's the buying volume it supplies.

The 24 hour trading volume for Tether is $175B. The 24 hour trading volume for BTC is $80B (as I write this). Tether is the money in the system.


That's not really how it works either. If the 24hr USDT volume is $175B, that just means people are trading the same USDT for other things multiple times in a 24 hour period. That's it. But two people cannot use the same Tether to buy different things at the same time, so market inflation due to USDT can never really be beyond its market cap.

Tether is a vehicle, not the money in the system. People use Tether because it can be traded against your favorite coin on your favorite exchange. For example Binance (the largest crypto exchange) doesn't offer any USD pairs, so if you are someone with a lot of dollars you buy some USDT with your USD at 1-to-1, then you go trade that USDT for whatever you want.

USDT causes a crash in crypto based on two properties: actual fraud / funny money shenanigans and market sentiment. I was only really addressing the former in my analysis, because "market sentiment" is basically impossible to do anything useful with in a future-telling sense.


Thats not really how it works either :).

If you and I both agree to trade 0.000001BTC @ a price of $1,000,000/BTC, meaning the total value of our trade is $1, and we both know that the supply of bitcoin is 19,000,000 coins. Does that make the "Market cap" of bitcoin 1.9Quintillion dollars? Obviously not.

Market cap is a historically bad metric to track when comparing things like this.

So back to your question at hand, how would a $80B USDT market cap topple a $500B market cap. Well, first we realize based on the above silly example, $500B isn't necessarily the real value. If Bitfinex (tether) has been printing USDT and using that to buy bitcoin, then the market cap of BTC is inflated by an asset effectively worth $0.

Once this realization sets in, panic selling starts, and there is an overwhelming greater number of sellers than buyers, and it doesn't take $500B worth of trades to topple a coin with a $500B market cap (if that market cap is inflated by hopes and dreams).


So significantly more expensive than if they had used an existing structure to accomplish the same goals (shares in a company for example).


Yup. Goes to show that Ethereum might not be the best tool for DAOs. Need a cheaper solution!


Ethereum will scale thanks to validity rollups and data shards. The technical design is pretty much done; it's just engineering work from here!


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