Courts get rulings wrong all the time. How many times has someone on death row been exonerated for a crime?
The App Store is a monopoly by definition. It is the only form of app distribution to 100% of iPhone users. Going further, it is the only form of app distribution to greater than 50% of the US market. Vertical integration is a very valid argument to make here, same as it was with Standard Oil, and other companies of the early 20th century.
> The App Store is a monopoly by definition. It is the only form of app distribution to 100% of iPhone users.
That’s not how monopolies are defined under US law, so no it’s not, by definition.
It’s always possible to define an arbitrarily narrow market such that one company owns 100% of it. The legal definition of a monopoly requires specific criteria to be met which have not been met in this case.
> Why did you leave off my next sentence from the quote?
I quoted the specific line I disagreed with?
> Can you please link to the definition you are using?
To be honest this issue is too complicated to be boiled down to a simple definition as the criteria have evolved over time across multiple Supreme Court (and lower court) cases. In this particular case the "iOS app distribution" market is considered an "aftermarket" in antitrust law (the foremarket being smartphones), and single-brand aftermarkets are rarely allowed by the courts.
If you are genuinely curious about the topic this is a good primer:
Courts get rulings wrong all the time. How many times has someone on death row been exonerated for a crime?
The App Store is a monopoly by definition. It is the only form of app distribution to 100% of iPhone users. Going further, it is the only form of app distribution to greater than 50% of the US market. Vertical integration is a very valid argument to make here, same as it was with Standard Oil, and other companies of the early 20th century.