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That article was posted by the original author on Reddit and one of the commentators came up with a plausible explanation (which convinced the author).

In one sentence the idea is that because public defenders know that the overwhelming majority of their clients belong in jail, and the judge knows that public defenders know that too, if a public defender makes an extra plea to the judge that's a signal that the public defender knows something that means this client really shouldn't be in jail and therefore changes the judge's opinion of the client.

https://old.reddit.com/r/TheMotte/comments/w5jyyd/eleven_mag...




But why wouldn't the PD just say why the defendant doesn't belong in jail?




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